Since the after-tax cost of debt capital is usually the cheapest component cost of capital (relative to equity capital), why don’t firms always finance 100% of any investment with new debt? Cite source please. Min. 150 words.

Since the after-tax cost of debt capital is usually the cheapest component
cost of capital (relative to equity capital), why don’t firms always finance 100% of any investment with new debt? Cite source please. Min. 150 words.
 
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